# (Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper – 2018 “held on 24 Jan 2018” Afternoon Shift (Elecrical Engineering)

## (Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper – 2018 “held on 24 Jan 2018” Afternoon Shift (Elecrical Engineering)

** QID :** 901 – Which of the following material does not allow the current to flow in it?

**Options:**

1) Conductor

2) Insulator

3) Semiconductor

4) Superconductor** Correct Answer:** Insulator

**QID :** 902 – How much power (in W) will be dissipated by a 5 Ohm resistor in which the value of current is 2 A?

**Options:**

1) 10

2) 30

3) 20

4) 40**Correct Answer:** 20

**QID :** 903 – Which property of an electrical conductor opposes a change in the current?

**Options:**

1) Resistance

2) Capacitance

3) Conductance

4) Inductance**Correct Answer:** Inductance

**QID :** 904 – What is the resistivity (in Ohms-m) of a 2 Ohm cylindrical wire when the length and the diameter of the wire are 10 m and 0.4 m respectively?

**Options:**

1) 0.025

2) 0.0025

3) 0.25

4) 0.05**Correct Answer:** 0.025

**QID :** 905 – Farad is the S.I unit of ________.

**Options:**

1) Inductance

2) Resistance

3) Capacitance

4) Reluctance**Correct Answer:** Capacitance

**QID :** 906 –

Options:

1) 4.56

2) 4.32

3) 54.65

4) 54.28**Correct Answer:** 4.32

**QID :** 907 – What will be the resistance (in Ohms) of a lamp rated at 220 V, 200 W?

**Options:**

1) 220

2) 224

3) 244

4) 242**Correct Answer:** 242

**QID :** 908 –

Options:

1) 5

2) 7

3) 10

4) 4**Correct Answer:** 7

**QID :** 909 – Two wires of same resistivity have equal length. The cross sectional area of first wire is two times to the area of the other. What will be the resistance (in Ohms) of the wire that has a large cross sectional area, if the resistance of the other wire is 20 Ohms?

**Options:**

1) 40

2) 20

3) 30

4) 10**Correct Answer:** 10

**QID :** 910 –

Options:

1) 4.65

2) 2.35

3) 3.3

4) 1.33**Correct Answer:** 3.3

**QID :** 911 – Which of the following statement is CORRECT?

**Options:**

1) Norton’s theorem is same as superposition theorem.

2) Norton’s theorem is the converse of superposition theorem.

3) Norton’s theorem is same as Thevenin’s theorem.

4) Norton’s theorem is the converse of Thevenin’s theorem.**Correct Answer:** Norton’s theorem is the converse of Thevenin’s theorem.

**QID :** 912 – The algebraic sum of the electric currents meeting at a common point is _______.

**Options:**

1) Infinity

2) Zero

3) One

4) Negative**Correct Answer:** Zero

**QID :** 913 – Which of the following law is based on the conservation of energy?

**Options:**

1) Kirchhoff’s Current Law

2) Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law

3) Ohm’s Law

4) Coulomb’s Law**Correct Answer:** Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law

**QID :** 914 –

Options:

1) 4

2) -4

3) 6

4) -6**Correct Answer:** 6

**QID :** 915 –

Options:

1) 2

2) 4

3) 4.66

4) 5.6**Correct Answer:** 4.66

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**QID :** 916 –

Options:

1) -2, -1.5

2) 2, 1.5

3) -2, 1.5

4) 2, -1.5**Correct Answer:** 2, 1.5

**QID :** 917 –

Options:

1) 4, 32

2) -4, 32

3) 6, 30

4) -6, 30**Correct Answer:** 4, 32

**QID :** 918 –

Options:

1) 40, 22, 2.22

2) 50, 32, 1.11

3) 60, 22, 2.22

4) 60, 32, 1.50**Correct Answer:** 60, 22, 2.22

**QID :** 919 –

Options:

1) 30

2) 25

3) 20

4) 35**Correct Answer:** 35

**QID :** 920 –

Options:

1) 2.09, 7.66

2) 2.34, 3.45

3) 4.43, 3.26

4) 2.34, 2.55**Correct Answer:** 2.09, 7.66

**QID :** 921 – The S.I unit of magnetic flux is ______.

**Options:**

1) Henry

2) Coulomb

3) Tesla

4) Weber**Correct Answer:** Weber

**QID :** 922 – The relative permeability of diamagnetic materials is _____.

**Options:**

1) Greater than 1

2) Greater than 10

3) Less than 1

4) Greater than 100**Correct Answer:** Less than 1

**QID :** 923 – Which of the following is the reciprocal of reluctance?

**Options:**

1) Permeability

2) Susceptibility

3) Permeance

4) Reluctivity**Correct Answer:** Permeance

**QID :** 924 – Which of the following is the CORRECT formula for permeance?

**Options:**

1)

2)

3)

4)

**Correct Answer:**

**QID :** 925 – Determine the intensity of magnetization (in A/m) of a magnet when it has a pole strength of 60 A-m and a pole area of 20 sq. m.

**Options:**

1) 9

2) 4

3) 6

4) 3**Correct Answer:** 3

**QID :** 926 – What will be the magnitude of induced EMF (in V) in a coil that has 200 square loops, each of side 5 cm and placed normal to a magnetic field? The magnetic field increases at the rate of 4 Weber per sq. meter.

**Options:**

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4**Correct Answer:** 2

**QID :** 927 – What will be the value of current (in A) in a 40 cm long solenoid in free space, if it has 400 turns, 2 cm of diameter and produces a magnetic field of 4 mT at its center?

**Options:**

1) 4.23

2) 5.15

3) 3.18

4) 2.34**Correct Answer:** 3.18

**QID :** 928 – What will be the self-inductance (in H) of a 2 m long air-core solenoid, if the diameter of the solenoid is 25 cm and has 600 turns?

**Options:**

1) 0.011

2) 0.045

3) 0.132

4) 0.645**Correct Answer:** 0.011

**QID :** 929 –

Options:

1) 40

2) 20

3) 50

4) 60**Correct Answer:** 50

**QID :** 930 – Determine the magnitude of the EMF (in V) induced between the axis of rotation and the rim of the disc, when the disc of diameter 40 cm rotates with an angular velocity of 40 revolutions per second and placed in a magnetic field of 1 T acting parallel to the rotation of the disc.

**Options:**

1) 6

2) 3.6

3) 4.8

4) 5**Correct Answer:** 5

**QID :** 931 –

Options:

1) 0

2) 10

3) 14.14

4) 17.32**Correct Answer:** 14.14

**QID :** 932 – What is the peak value of the alternating voltage (in V) having an average value of 180 V?

**Options:**

1) 254.59

2) 282.57

3) 333.34

4) 359.96**Correct Answer:** 282.57

**QID :** 933 – The capacitive reactance of a circuit is 60 Ohms, when it is supplied with a 50 Hz supply. What will be the value of capacitive reactance (in Ohms) of the same circuit, if it is supplied with a 60 Hz supply?

**Options:**

1) 50

2) 60

3) 75

4) 125**Correct Answer:** 50

**QID :** 934 –

Options:

1) 0

2) 0.5

3) 1

4) 2**Correct Answer:** 0

**QID :** 935 – Calculate the value of phase angle (in Degrees) in a series RC circuit having a resistance of 50 Ohms and a capacitive reactance of 86.6 Ohms, when supplied with a frequency of 50 Hz.

**Options:**

1) 15

2) 30

3) 45

4) 60**Correct Answer:** 60

**QID :** 936 – What is the value of the total impedance (in ohms) of a tank circuit working at resonant frequency having a capacitance of 0.01 mF and an inductance of 0.01 mH?

**Options:**

1) 0

2) 10

3) 100

4) ∞**Correct Answer:** ∞

**QID :** 937 – Calculate the time (in seconds) taken by a series RL circuit having inductance of 0.6 H and resistance of 30 Ohms to reach a steady state value.

**Options:**

1) 0.02

2) 0.05

3) 0.1

4) 0.5**Correct Answer:** 0.1

**QID :** 938 – Which of the following is NOT correct about a star connected balanced 3-phase circuit?

**Options:**

1) The phase current is equal to the line current.

2) The phase voltage is less than the line voltage.

3) The system does not contain a neutral point.

4) It is a four wire system.**Correct Answer:** The system does not contain a neutral point.

**QID :** 939 – A 3-phase delta connected system is supplied by a line voltage of 400 V. The value of phase current is 70 A. What is the power (in kW) consumed by the system, if the current lags the voltage by 60 degrees?

**Options:**

1) 16.8

2) 42

3) 67.2

4) 84**Correct Answer:** 42

**QID :** 940 – What is the apparent power of a 3-phase star connected system having a line voltage of 250 V and a line current of 40 A and the phase difference between the voltage and current is 36.87 degrees?

**Options:**

1) 13.856 kW

2) 13.856 kVA

3) 17.32 kW

4) 17.32 kVA**Correct Answer:** 17.32 kVA

**QID :** 941 – Which of the following is the dimension of resistance?

**Options:**

1)

2)

3)

4)

**Correct Answer:**

**QID :** 942 – A factory runs in 3 shifts of 8 hours each, in which it consumes 30 kW, 15 kW and 25 kW in each shift respectively. Calculate the energy (in kWh) consumed by the factory per day.

**Options:**

1) 186.67

2) 373

3) 560

4) 746.67**Correct Answer:** 560

**QID :** 943 – In two wattmeter method of power calculation of a 3-phase balanced star connected system, what is the power factor of the system if one of the wattmeter shows zero reading and the other shows a positive reading?

**Options:**

1) 0

2) Greater than 0 but less than 0.5

3) 0.5

4) Greater than 0.5 but less than 1**Correct Answer:** 0.5

**QID :** 944 – Which of the following is NOT an advantage of PMMC type instruments?

**Options:**

1) Frictional error is low.

2) Single instrument can be used for multi range measurements of voltage and current.

3) Uniformly divided scale.

4) Stray magnetic field error is small.**Correct Answer:** Frictional error is low.

**QID :** 945 – Which of the following quantities cannot be measured using a multimeter?

**Options:**

1) AC Voltage

2) DC Current

3) Phase Angle

4) Resistance**Correct Answer:** Phase Angle

**QID :** 946 – Which of the following can measure the resistance having value below 1 Ohms most precisely?

**Options:**

1) Kelvin’s Double Bridge

2) Megger

3) Multimeter

4) Wheatstone Bridge**Correct Answer:** Kelvin’s Double Bridge

**QID :** 947 – Which of the following materials when used as the viewing surface of a CRO gives a bluish glow?

**Options:**

1) Zinc Sulfide with copper as impurity

2) Zinc Sulfide with silver as impurity

3) Yttrium Oxide

4) Pure Zinc Sulfide**Correct Answer:** Zinc Sulfide with silver as impurity

**QID :** 948 – What is the percentage voltage error of a potential transformer with system voltage of 11,000 V and having turns ratio of 100, if the measured secondary side voltage is 105 V?

**Options:**

1) 2.75

2) 3.55

3) 4.54

4) 9.09**Correct Answer:** 4.54

**QID :** 949 – Which of the following is the cause of a speed error in induction type energy meter?

**Options:**

1) Incorrect position of brake magnets.

2) Incorrect adjustment of the position of shading bands.

3) Slow but continuous rotation of aluminum disc.

4) Temperature variations**Correct Answer:** Incorrect position of brake magnets.

**QID :** 950 – A circuit having power factor of 0.8 consumes 20 W. What is the value of reactive power (in VAR) of the circuit?

**Options:**

1) 10

2) 15

3) 20

4) 25**Correct Answer:** 15

**QID :** 951 – During plugging, external resistance is also introduced into a circuit to limit the flowing_____.

**Options:**

1) current

2) voltage

3) current and voltage both

4) none of these**Correct Answer:** current

**QID :** 952 – A Transformer

**Options:**

1) Changes AC to DC.

2) Changes DC to AC.

3) Steps up or down DC Voltages & Current.

4) Steps up or down AC Voltages & Current.**Correct Answer:** Steps up or down AC Voltages & Current.

**QID :** 953 – The overall power factor of an On-load transformer_____,.

**Options:**

1) depends on the power factor of the load.

2) is always lagging.

3) is always unity.

4) is always leading.**Correct Answer:** depends on the power factor of the load.

**QID :** 954 – Dynamic braking can be used for which of the following?

**Options:**

1) Shunt motors

2) Series motors

3) Compound motors

4) All options are correct

Candidate Answer: [ NOT ANSWERED ]

**QID :** 955 – The parts of the armature electric circuit which take active part in e.m.f. generation are _____.

**Options:**

1) The coil sides inside the slots

2) The overhangs

3) both the coil sides inside the slots and the overhangs

4) the commutator segments**Correct Answer:** The coil sides inside the slots

**QID :** 956 – The interpoles in dc machines have a tapering shape in order to

**Options:**

1) reduce the overall weight

2) reduce the saturation in the interpole

3) economise on the material required for interpoles

4) increase the acceleration of commutation**Correct Answer:** reduce the saturation in the interpole

**QID :** 957 – Maximum efficiency will occur, when copper loss and iron loss are

**Options:**

1) unity

2) zero

3) unequal

4) equal**Correct Answer:** equal

**QID :** 958 – The higher the voltage in the transmission line, the current which will flow through the transmission line for a given power to be transmitted will be

**Options:**

1) higher

2) equal

3) lower

4) Unity**Correct Answer:** lower

**QID :** 959 – No-load test on induction motor is conducted to find which of the following losses?

**Options:**

1) stator core loss

2) rotational loss

3) Stator copper loss

4) All options are correct**Correct Answer:** All options are correct

**QID :** 960 – If the torque of the induction motor decreases, the________.

**Options:**

1) speed of rotor increases

2) speed of rotor decreases

3) current of the rotor decreases

4) power of the motor decreases**Correct Answer:** speed of rotor increases

**QID :** 961 – Reduction in the capacitance of a capacitor- start motor results in reduced_____.

**Options:**

1) Noise

2) Speed

3) Starting torque

4) Armature reaction**Correct Answer:** Starting torque

**QID :** 962 – A single-phase induction motor with only the main winding excited would exhibit the following response at synchronous speed

**Options:**

1) Rotor current is zero

2) Rotor current is non-zero and is at slip frequency

3) Forward and backward rotating fields are equal

4) Forward rotating field is more than the backward rotating field**Correct Answer:** Forward rotating field is more than the backward rotating field

**QID :** 963 – The electric motor used in portable drills is_____.

**Options:**

1) capacitor run motor

2) hysteresis motor

3) universal motor

4) repulsion motor**Correct Answer:** universal motor

**QID :** 964 – In which single-phase motor, the rotor has no teeth or winding ?

**Options:**

1) Split phase motor

2) Reluctance motor

3) Hysteresis motor

4) Universal motor**Correct Answer:** Hysteresis motor

**QID :** 965 – The range of efficiency for shaded pole motors is

**Options:**

1) 95% to 99%

2) 80% to 90%

3) 50% to 75%

4) 5% to 35%**Correct Answer:** 5% to 35%

**QID :** 966 – The direction of rotation of universal motor can be reversed by reversing the flow of current through_______.

**Options:**

1) armature winding

2) field winding

3) either armature winding or field winding

4) None of these**Correct Answer:** either armature winding or field winding

**QID :** 967 – Which of the following statement is incorrect?

**Options:**

1) As the temperature rises, the tension in the transmission line decreases

2) As temperature rises, the sag in transmission lines reduces

3) Tension and sag in transmission lines are complementary to each other

4) None of these**Correct Answer:** As temperature rises, the sag in transmission lines reduces

**QID :** 968 – Series capacitors in transmission lines are of little use when

**Options:**

1) the load VAR requirement is small

2) the load VAR requirement is large

3) the load VAR requirement is fluctuating

4) None of these**Correct Answer:** the load VAR requirement is small

**QID :** 969 – Stability of a system is not affected by____.

**Options:**

1) reactance of line

2) losses

3) reactance of generator

4) output torque**Correct Answer:** losses

**QID :** 970 – Which of the following is not a constituent for making porcelain insulators?

**Options:**

1) Silica

2) Kaolin

3) Feldspar

4) Quartz**Correct Answer:** Silica

**QID :** 971 – Name the generating station where electrical energy is generated through steam.

**Options:**

1) Thermal power station

2) Diesel power station

3) Hydro power station

4) Nuclear power station**Correct Answer:** Thermal power station

**QID :** 972 – In a 3-phase 4-wire cable, the cross-sectional area of neutral conductor is

**Options:**

1) equal to phase conductor

2) more than phase conductor

3) half the phase conductor

4) None of these**Correct Answer:** half the phase conductor

**QID :** 973 – Fuse is always made up of alloys and metals having

**Options:**

1) high resistance and high melting points

2) High resistance and low melting points

3) low resistance and low melting points

4) low resistance and high melting points**Correct Answer:** High resistance and low melting points

**QID :** 974 – In case of stair case wiring which type of switch is used?

**Options:**

1) 2 one way switches

2) 1 one way switch

3) 2 two way switch

4) 1 two way switch**Correct Answer:** 2 two way switch

**QID :** 975 – Two incandescent lamps of wattage 40W, 60W are connected in series with voltage of 230 V. Which out of the two lamps will glow brighter?

Options:

1) 40W

2) 60W

3) both brightly

4) both dim**Correct Answer:** 40W

**QID :** 976 – Rating of fuse wire is expressed in terms of____.

**Options:**

1) ohms

2) mhos

3) amperes

4) watts**Correct Answer:** amperes

**QID :** 977 – If a live wire comes in contact with metal casing, excess current moves to______.

**Options:**

1) power house

2) dynamos

3) earth

4) transformers**Correct Answer:** earth

**QID :** 978 – A 3-phase, 4 wire system is commonly used on____.

**Options:**

1) primary transmission

2) secondary transmission

3) primary distribution

4) Secondary distribution**Correct Answer:** Secondary distribution

**QID :** 979 – Insulator that is used in low voltage distribution lines is known as_____.

**Options:**

1) shackle

2) strain

3) pin

4) suspension**Correct Answer:** shackle

**QID :** 980 – Which of the following type of lamp gives more illumination from low wattage ?

**Options:**

1) Incandescent lamp

2) Fluorescent lamp

3) Compact fluorescent lamp

4) LED lamp**Correct Answer:** LED lamp

**QID :** 981 – The fuse is installed in which of the following wire?

**Options:**

1) Neutral

2) Phase

3) earth

4) All options are correct**Correct Answer:** Phase

**QID :** 982 – The wave form of the armature m.m.f. in DC machine is _____.

**Options:**

1) square

2) rectangular

3) triangular

4) sinusoidal**Correct Answer:** triangular

**QID :** 983 – Light waves travel with a velocity of____.

**Options:**

1) 3X1010cm/s

2) 3X1012cm/s

3) 3X1015cm/s

4) 3X1018cm/s**Correct Answer:** 3X1010cm/s

**QID :** 984 – Light is produced in electric discharge lamps by_____.

**Options:**

1) Heating effect of current

2) Magnetic effect of current

3) Ionisation in a gas or vapour

4) Carbon electrodes**Correct Answer:** Ionisation in a gas or vapour

**QID :** 985 – A DC generator can be termed as________.

**Options:**

1) rotating amplifier

2) prime mover

3) power pump

4) None of these**Correct Answer:** rotating amplifier

**QID :** 986 – Arc blow is a welding defect which is encountered in

**Options:**

1) Arc welding using DC current

2) Arc welding using AC current

3) Gas welding

4) Thermit welding**Correct Answer:** Arc welding using DC current

**QID :** 987 – Which of the following has the highest value of thermal conductivity?

**Options:**

1) Aluminium

2) Brass

3) Copper

4) Iron**Correct Answer:** Copper

**QID :** 988 – During resistance welding heat produced at the joint is proportional to_____.

**Options:**

1) Current

2) Voltage

3) I2R

4) Volt-amperes**Correct Answer:** I2R

**QID :** 989 – Which of the following is tetravalent?

**Options:**

1) Quartz

2) Diamond

3) Germanium

4) Antimony**Correct Answer:** Germanium

**QID :** 990 – The acceptor type of impurity is_____.

**Options:**

1) phosphorous

2) aluminium

3) boron

4) iron**Correct Answer:** boron

**QID :** 991 –

Options:

1) (a)

2) (b)

3) (c )

4) (d)**Correct Answer:** (b)

**QID :** 992 – The peak inverse voltage, in case of a bridge rectifier, for each, diode is: (where, Em = Peak value of input voltage)

**Options:**

1) Em

2) 2Em

3) 3Em

4) 4Em**Correct Answer:** Em

**QID :** 993 – In an electronic circuit transistor is used for switching ON and OFF a relay, when the transistor switches OFF the relay, a higher voltage appears across the transistor. How can a transistor be protected from this voltage?

**Options:**

1) A capacitor in series to the relay

2) A resistor in series to the relay

3) An inductor parallel to the relay

4) A diode parallel to the relay**Correct Answer:** A diode parallel to the relay

**QID :** 994 – The efficiency of the class B amplifier is approximately:

**Options:**

1) 10% to 30%

2) 30% to 50%

3) 50% to 60%

4) 70% to 100%**Correct Answer:** 70% to 100%

**QID :** 995 – The oscillations in a synchronous motor can be damped out by

**Options:**

1) maintaining constant excitation

2) providing damper bars in the rotor pole faces

3) running the motor on leading power factors

4) oscillations cannot be damped**Correct Answer:** providing damper bars in the rotor pole faces

**QID :** 996 – An over excited synchronous motor is used for_______.

**Options:**

1) variable speed loads

2) low torque loads

3) power factor corrections

4) high torque loads**Correct Answer:** power factor corrections

**QID :** 997 – Synchronous motors are_____.

**Options:**

1) essentially self-starting

2) not-self starting

3) self-starting

4) None of these**Correct Answer:** not-self starting

**QID :** 998 – When any one-phase of a 3-phase synchronous motor is short-circuited, the motor_____.

**Options:**

1) will overheat in spots

2) will refuse to start

3) will not come upto speed

4) will fail to pull into step**Correct Answer:** will overheat in spots

**QID :** 999 – Which of the following can be measured by conducting insulation resistance test on a synchronous motor ?

**Options:**

1) Phase to phase winding resistance

2) Rotor winding to earthed shaft

3) Stator winding to earthed frame

4) All options are correct**Correct Answer:** All options are correct

**QID :** 1000 – The under-excited synchronous motor takes______.

**Options:**

1) leading current

2) lagging current

3) both leading current and lagging current

4) None of these**Correct Answer:** lagging current